Actual Certifications Exam Q&A - Best Exam Dumps for Sale

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Question 1:

A new algorithm has been written in Python to identify SPAM e-mails. The algorithm analyzes the free text contained within a sample set of 1 million e-mails stored on Amazon S3. The algorithm must be scaled across a production dataset of

5 PB, which also resides in Amazon S3 storage.

Which AWS service strategy is best for this use case?

A. Copy the data into Amazon ElastiCache to perform text analysis on the in-memory data and export the results of the model into Amazon Machine Learning.

B. Use Amazon EMR to parallelize the text analysis tasks across the cluster using a streaming program step.

C. Use Amazon Elasticsearch Service to store the text and then use the Python Elasticsearch Client to run analysis against the text index.

D. Initiate a Python job from AWS Data Pipeline to run directly against the Amazon S3 text files.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/database/indexing-metadata-in-amazon-elasticsearch-service-using-aws-lambda-and-python/

Question 2:

A data engineer chooses Amazon DynamoDB as a data store for a regulated application. This application must be submitted to regulators for review. The data engineer needs to provide a control framework that lists the security controls from

the process to follow to add new users down to the physical controls of the data center, including items like security guards and cameras.

How should this control mapping be achieved using AWS?

A. Request AWS third-party audit reports and/or the AWS quality addendum and map the AWS responsibilities to the controls that must be provided.

B. Request data center Temporary Auditor access to an AWS data center to verify the control mapping.

C. Request relevant SLAs and security guidelines for Amazon DynamoDB and define these guidelineswithin the application\’s

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Question 1:

What is the amount of the principal plus interest due at maturity on a 1-month (32-day) deposit of USD 50,000,000.00 placed at 0.37%?

A. EUR 50,015,416.67

B. EUR 50,016,219.18

C. EUR 50,016,444.44

D. EUR 50,016,958.33

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

Which of the following currencies is quoted on an ACT/360 basis in the money market?

A. SGD

B. PLN

C. GBP

D. NZD

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

What is EONIA?

A. Volume-weighted average overnight EUR deposit rate

B. Volume-weighted average overnight EUR LIBOR

C. Arithmetic average overnight EUR deposit rate

D. ECB overnight lending rate

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument?

A. CD

B. FRA

C. BA

D. ECP

Correct Answer: B

Question 5:

What is the maximum maturity of an unsecured USCP?

A. One year

B. 270 days

C. 183 days

D. 5 years

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

Which party usually takes an initial margin in a classic repo?

A. The buyer

B. The seller

C. Neither

D. Both

Correct Answer: A

Question 7:

What are the primary reasons for taking an initial margin in a classic repo?

A. Counterparty risk and operational risk

B. Counterparty risk and legal risk

C. Collateral illiquidity and counterparty risk

D. Collateral illiquidity and legal risk

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

A CD with a face value of EUR 10,000,000.00 and a coupon of 3% was issued at par for 182 days and is now trading at 3.10% with 120 days remaining to maturity. What has been the capital gain or loss since issue?

A. -EUR 52,161.00

B. -t-EUR 47,839.00

C. -EUR 3,827.67

D. Nil

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

The tom/next GC repo rate for German government bonds is quoted to you at 1.75-80%. As collateral, you sell EUR 10,000,000.00 million nominal of the 5.25% Bund July 2012, which is worth EUR 11,260,000.00. If you have to give an initial margin of 2%, the Repurchase Price is:

A. EUR 11,035,336.41

B. EUR 11,035,351.74

C. EUR 11,039,752.32

D. EUR 11,039,767.65

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

If EUR/USD is quoted to you as 1.3050-53, does this price represent?

A. The number of EUR per USD

B. The number of USD per EUR

C. Depends on whether the price is being quoted in Europe or the US

D. Depends on whether the price is being quoted interbank or to a customer

Correct Answer: B

Question 11:

The seller of a EUR/RUB NDF could be:

A. a potential buyer of EUR against RUB

B. speculating on an appreciation of the Russian Rouble

C. expecting rising EUR/RUB exchange rates

D. a seller of Russian Rouble

Correct Answer: B

Question 12:

Are the forward points significantly affected by changes in the spot rate?

A. Never

B. For very large movements and longer terms

C. Always

D. Spot is the principal influence

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

In GBP/CHF, you are quoted the following prices by four different banks. You are a buyer of CHF. Which is the best quote for you?

A. 1.4340

B. 1.4343

C. 1.4337

D. 1.4335

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

Which of the following CHF/JPY quotes that you have received is the best rate for you to buy CHF?

A. 105.80

B. 105.75

C. 105.70

D. 105.85

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

Clients of a voice-broker quote EUR/USD at 1.3556-61, 1.3559-62, 1.3557-63 and 1.3555-59.

What will be the broker\’s

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Question 1:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.

You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the cost of work order bookings.

Solution: You implement the following configuration changes:

1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks.

2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type.

3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type.

4) Create the Holiday Schedule.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.

You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the cost of work order bookings.

Solution: You implement the following configuration changes:

1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks.

2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type.

3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type.

4) Create Business Closures.

5) Create Bookable Resources with Hourly Rates.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Question 3:

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.

You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to automatically generate work orders based on agreements, and send invoices on a recurring basis by customer.

Solution: You implement the following configuration changes. 1) Create Agreement 2) Define Agreement Products 3) Set Booking Recurrence 4) Create Invoice Setup 5) Define Invoice Recurrence

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

As a new start-up field services company, you are looking to streamline your customer service process to provide the best customer service experience.

Your company has decided to implement Dynamics Field Services as the foundation for its customer service management processes.

You need to ensure that the cases that the customer service team creates can be quickly and efficiently converted to work orders (that will minimize the need to add additional information to the work orders) using the out-of-the-box

capabilities.

Which key item do you need to configure before the customer service agents will be able to convert a case to a work order?

A. Resources

B. Work Order Types

C. Booking Rules

D. Incident Type

Correct Answer: D

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/configure-incident-types

Question 5:

You are entering products and services into Dynamics 365 CE Field Services.

You need to ensure that your field technicians can use the products when completing work orders.

Which two field service product types should you configure to allow your technicians to add work order products? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A. Product

B. Non Inventory

C. Inventory

D. Service

Correct Answer: CD

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/create-product-or-service

Question 6:

You are implementing Dynamics 365 for Field Service.

Your customer needs to understand how they can schedule the closest possible resource to a work order. The requirement further specifies it could be start of day from the company\’s

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Question 1:

An administrator attempts to add an S Series node to a Gen 2 VxRail cluster and the build fails. What is a possible reason for this failure?

A. IP address pool has no more free addresses

B. Hybrid and Flash nodes cannot be mixed in the same cluster

C. Quanta and Dell nodes cannot be mixed in the same cluster

D. Loudmouth process needs to be restarted

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

There is a request to add new disks to an existing VM residing on a VxRail vSAN that you manage. One disk is 250 GB. The VM is using the vSAN default storage policy.

How many vSAN objects will be created?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 6

D. 9

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

A VxRail administrator has been informed by Dell EMC that an Internet software upgrade is available for their VxRail cluster. The administrator logs into VxRail Manager. VxRail Manager shows only the Local Upgrade option and not the Internet Upgrade option.

What is a possible reason?

A. The VxRail Manager user has insufficient privileges

B. Workstation accessing VxRail Manager does not have Internet connectivity

C. Secure Remote Services has not been enabled

D. VxRail Manager VM does not have Internet connectivity

Correct Answer: D

Question 4:

What are the vSAN storage policy settings applied to the VxRail Manager VM during initial setup?

A. Primary level of failures to tolerate = 1 Failure tolerance method = Erasure coding Object space reservation (%) = 100

B. Primary level of failures to tolerate = 1 Object space reservation (%) = 100

C. Primary level of failures to tolerate = 1 Failure tolerance method = Mirroring Object space reservation (%) = 50

D. Primary level of failures to tolerate = 2 Failure tolerance method = Mirroring

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

When using a vSAN storage policy with FTT = 1 and FTM = Mirroring, how many witness components exist for a VMDK?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

What is the minimum number of nodes needed for self-healing after a failure with a vSAN storage policy of FTT = 1 and FTM = Mirroring?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

You are planning to install CloudArray Virtual Edition. Where should you navigate to in VxRail Manager?

A. Config > System

B. Config > General

C. Support > Download

D. Config > Market

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

Which VxRail model series supports only hybrid disks?

A. S Series

B. P Series

C. E Series

D. G Series

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

A user has three G Series nodes in a VxRail cluster. They are planning to add five additional G Series nodes.

How much additional rack is required to accommodate the new nodes?

A. 1U

B. 2U

C. 5U

D. 10U

Correct Answer: B

Question 10:

A VxRail administrator needs to add storage capacity to a 4-node VxRail E Series cluster. Each node currently has one cache and four capacity disks.

What does the administrator need to order, per node, to fully populate the available disk slots?

A. 1 cache and 5 capacity disks

B. 5 capacity disks

C. 1 cache and 4 capacity disks

D. 1 capacity disk

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

A VxRail has been configured with the VxRail-deployed vCenter Server option. Which service VMs can be optionally hosted on the VxRail cluster?

A. VxRail Manager, vCenter Server, and Platform Services Controller

B. VxRail Manager and Secure Remote Services/VE

C. vCenter Server, Platform Services Controller, and Secure Remote Services/VE

D. vRealize Log Insight and Secure Remote Services/VE

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

An environment has two VxRail clusters with the following hardware configuration:

Cluster-A is using FTT = 2 and FTM = Erasure Coding Cluster-B is using FTT = 2 and FTM = Mirroring

A 100 GB VM is planned to be vMotioned from Cluster-A to Cluster-B.

How much more vSAN capacity is consumed in Cluster-B than in Cluster-A?

A. 0 GB; consumption is unchanged

B. 100 GB

C. 150 GB

D. 167 GB

Correct Answer: D

Question 13:

What is a consideration when choosing between vSphere Encryption and vSAN Encryption?

A. vSphere Encryption applies to the entire vSAN datastore vSAN Encryption is on a per VM basis.

B. vSphere Encryption does not support deduplication and compression vSAN Encryption allows deduplication and compression

C. vSphere Encryption addresses fears of media theft vSAN Encryption addresses fears of a rogue admin

D. vSphere Encryption is for data-at-rest vSAN Encryption is for data-in-flight

Correct Answer: D

Question 14:

A VxRail administrator wants to search for VxRail related knowledge base articles through the VxRail Manager user interface. Which action must the administrator perform to use this feature?

A. Register for a VxRail Community login and set the credentials in VxRail Manager

B. Work with Dell EMC to register the VxRail appliance in the install Database

C. Set the Dell EMC Support username and password in VxRail Manager

D. Configure proxy settings in VxRail Manager for access to the Internet

Correct Answer: D

Question 15:

What is the limit of locally cached managed storage included in the CloudArray Virtual Edition license packaged with a VxRail system?

A. 1 TB

B. 5 TB

C. 10 TB

D. 15 TB

Correct Answer: A

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Question 1:

An unauthorized individual enters a building following an employee through the employee entrance after the lunch rush. What type of breach has the individual just performed?

A. Reverse Social Engineering

B. Tailgating

C. Piggybacking

D. Announced

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

If you want only to scan fewer ports than the default scan using Nmap tool, which option would you use?

A. -sP

B. -P

C. -r

D. -F

Correct Answer: B

Question 3:

Which of the following is an adaptive SQL Injection testing technique used to discover coding errors by inputting massive amounts of random data and observing the changes in the output?

A. Function Testing

B. Dynamic Testing

C. Static Testing

D. Fuzzing Testing

Correct Answer: D

Question 4:

You need a tool that can do network intrusion prevention and intrusion detection, function as a network sniffer, and record network activity, what tool would you most likely select?

A. Nmap

B. Cain and Abel

C. Nessus

D. Snort

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

Which is the first step followed by Vulnerability Scanners for scanning a network?

A. TCP/UDP Port scanning

B. Firewall detection

C. OS Detection

D. Checking if the remote host is alive

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

Insecure direct object reference is a type of vulnerability where the application does not verify if the user is authorized to access the internal object via its name or key.

Suppose a malicious user Rob tries to get access to the account of a benign user Ned.

Which of the following requests best illustrates an attempt to exploit an insecure direct object reference vulnerability?

A. “GET/restricted/goldtransfer?to=Robandfrom=1 or 1=1\’ HTTP/1.1Host: westbank.com”

B. “GET/restricted/accounts/?name=Ned HTTP/1.1 Host: westbank.com”

C. “GET/restricted/bank.getaccount(`Ned\’) HTTP/1.1 Host: westbank.com”

D. “GET/restricted/\r\n\accountNedaccess HTTP/1.1 Host: westbank.com”

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

Bob, your senior colleague, has sent you a mail regarding a deal with one of the clients. You are requested to accept the offer and you oblige. After 2 days. Bob denies that he had ever sent a mail. What do you want to “”know”” to prove yourself that it was Bob who had send a mail?

A. Authentication

B. Confidentiality

C. Integrity

D. Non-Repudiation

Correct Answer: D

Question 8:

The network team has well-established procedures to follow for creating new rules on the firewall. This includes having approval from a manager prior to implementing any new rules. While reviewing the firewall configuration, you notice a recently implemented rule but cannot locate manager approval for it. What would be a good step to have in the procedures for a situation like this?

A. Have the network team document the reason why the rule was implemented without prior manager approval.

B. Monitor all traffic using the firewall rule until a manager can approve it.

C. Do not roll back the firewall rule as the business may be relying upon it, but try to get manager approval as soon as possible.

D. Immediately roll back the firewall rule until a manager can approve it

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

You are a Penetration Tester and are assigned to scan a server. You need to use a scanning technique wherein the TCP Header is split into many packets so that it becomes difficult to detect what the packets are meant for. Which of the below scanning technique will you use?

A. ACK flag scanning

B. TCP Scanning

C. IP Fragment Scanning

D. Inverse TCP flag scanning

Correct Answer: C

Question 10:

Vlady works in a fishing company where the majority of the employees have very little understanding of IT let alone IT Security. Several information security issues that Vlady often found includes, employees sharing password, writing his/her password on a post it note and stick it to his/her desk, leaving the computer unlocked, didn\’t log out from emails or other social media accounts, and etc.

After discussing with his boss, Vlady decided to make some changes to improve the security environment in his company. The first thing that Vlady wanted to do is to make the employees understand the importance of keeping confidential information, such as password, a secret and they should not share it with other persons.

Which of the following steps should be the first thing that Vlady should do to make the employees in his company understand to importance of keeping confidential information a secret?

A. Warning to those who write password on a post it note and put it on his/her desk

B. Developing a strict information security policy

C. Information security awareness training

D. Conducting a one to one discussion with the other employees about the importance of information security

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

Which of the following options represents a conceptual characteristic of an anomaly-based IDS over a signature-based IDS?

A. Produces less false positives

B. Can identify unknown attacks

C. Requires vendor updates for a new threat

D. Cannot deal with encrypted network traffic

Correct Answer: B

Question 12:

Bob, a network administrator at BigUniversity, realized that some students are connecting their notebooks in the wired network to have Internet access. In the university campus, there are many Ethernet ports available for professors and authorized visitors but not for students.

He identified this when the IDS alerted for malware activities in the network.

What should Bob do to avoid this problem?

A. Disable unused ports in the switches

B. Separate students in a different VLAN

C. Use the 802.1x protocol

D. Ask students to use the wireless network

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

What is the minimum number of network connections in a multi homed firewall?

A. 3

B. 5

C. 4

D. 2

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

Darius is analysing logs from IDS. He want to understand what have triggered one alert and verify if it\’s

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Question 1:

The MTU board can support 4 E1/T1 interfaces. How to switch between E1 and T1 interfaces? Which statement is correct () (single choice)

A. You only need to select E1 or T1 in the “Parameter Configuration> Transmission Mode” in the “Quick Configuration> Configure Board” page on the U1900 Web management page, and the switch can be completed

B. The default is the E1 interface. To switch to T1, you need to remove the jumper cap inside the MTU board. Need to enter the Web management page to modify the configuration

C. The default is T1 interface, switch to E1, you need to remove the jumper cap inside the MTU board, and you need to enter the Web management page to modify the configuration

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

Phone A has been successfully registered to the U1900 system. At some point, unplug the network cable. At this time, log in to the U1900 system to check the registration status of phone A. The following statement is wrong ()

A. The registration status of phone A in the U1900 system may change immediately

B. The registration status of phone A in the U1900 system may remain unchanged

C. The registration status of phone A in the U1900 system may change after a period of time

D. The registration status of phone A in the U1900 system is updated, only after the network cable of phone A is unplugged, the change occurs after half of the registration period of phone A has passed

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

In the VoIP system, what are the factors that affect the quality of voice calls? () Multiple choice

A. Jitter

B. delay

C. Packet loss

D. bandwidth

Correct Answer: ABCD

Question 4:

In the U1900 unified gateway, outgoing calls need to be configured in a certain order. The following configuration process is correct () Multiple choice

A. Office route selection code -> office route -> trunk -> prefix

B. Office route selection code -> Trunk -> Office route -> Prefix

C. Office route selection code -> prefix -> office route -> trunk

D. Office route selection code -> Trunk -> Prefix -> Office route

Correct Answer: AC

Question 5:

How many pixels of a camera with 1080P image resolution equivalent ()

A. 2 million

B. 800w

C. 2.3 million

D. 5000000

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

How to order the recorded video on RSE6500 on the terminal side? ()

A. When there is SC and routing has been configured, the terminal directly calls the IP address of RSE6500

B. When there is SC and routing is configured, the terminal directly calls the recording ID

C. When there is no SC or SC is not configured with routing, the terminal directly calls the recording ID

D. When there is no SC or SC is not configured with routing, the terminal calls RSE6500IP address##Recording ID

Correct Answer: BD

Question 7:

In the message classification of the RTCP protocol, which of the following messages describe the receiving statistics data of the receiving gateway? ()

A. SR

B. BYE

C. RR

D. SDES

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

Which of the following backup methods is not supported by VP9660 MCU? ()

A. Main control board backup

B. Power backup

C. IP/E1 line backup

D. Media/signaling board backup

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

A single Media board of VP9660 MCU can support up to () 1080P 30 ports?

A. 12

B. 36

C. 24

D. 8

Correct Answer: C

Question 10:

In the Huawei eSpace UC solution, U1981, U1980, U1960, U1911 all support dual-system active and standby () Correct or Wrong

A. Correct

B. Wrong

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

There are two terminals, T1 and T2, both registered to the same GK. When T1 calls T2 by number, what is wrong with the following statement? () Multiple choice

A. The ACF message received by T1 contains the GK call signaling channel transmission address

B. The ACF message received by T1 contains the call signaling channel transmission address of T2

C. After T2 receives the Setup message, it sends an ARQ message to GK

D. After T2 receives the Setup message, it sends an ARQ message to T1

Correct Answer: AD

Question 12:

Regarding MCU cascading, what is wrong in the following description ()

A. MCU cascade is divided into manual cascade and automatic cascade

B. Manual cascading requires scheduling of two conference templates

C. Automatic cascading does not require configuration of cascading sites

D. Manual cascading must configure GK routing

Correct Answer: D

Question 13:

The following are not part of the H.245 capability set ()

A. H.235

B. H.239

C. H.350

D. H.460

Correct Answer: C

Question 14:

In the remote disaster recovery scenario, when the master node (U1981) fails, POTS user A of a branch node (The branch site equipment is U1911). If you make an outgoing call to the local PSTN user B through the branch node, the network element through which the SIP signaling of the call passes is ().

A. U1911->Preparation U1981->U1911

B. Prepare U1981->U1911

C. U1911

D. U1911->Main U1981->Backup U1981->U1911

Correct Answer: A

Question 15:

When other conditions are the same, the longer the reverberation time of the room, the clearer the sound heard Clarity. () Right or Wrong

A. Right

B. Wrong

Correct Answer: B

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Question 1:

After a notable event has been closed, how long will the meta data for that event remain in the KV Store by default?

A. 6 months.

B. 9 months.

C. 1 year.

D. 3 months.

Correct Answer: A

By default, notable event metadata is archived after six months to keep the KV store from growing too large.

Reference: https://docs.s

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Question 1:

Joe, a user, sets up an IMAP connection on his smartphone to connect to webmail. Joe is able to view email, but he receives an error message when trying to send a message. When viewing the mail client\’s configuration, Joe sees a valid SMTP server and port. Which of the following should Joe check NEXT to resolve the issue?

A. Configure the email account as a POP3 connection

B. Ensure the SSL/TLS option is being used

C. Check that the account password is still valid

D. Make sure the smartphone is not in airplane mode

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

A technician is troubleshooting network connectivity issues after a new wireless router was installed in an office. Users who connect to the new router are unable to access LAN resources. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. There are conflicting DHCP servers on the network

B. There are conflicting ARP records

C. There are conflicting gateways on the network

D. There are conflicting IP protocols

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

A user connects a laptop to a docking station but is unable to see an image on the external monitor. The user tests the docking station USB ports, and they are working fine. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A. Check for firmware updates

B. Configure extended display mode

C. Replace the external monitor

D. Adjust the laptop\’s

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Question 1:

Your organization is planning for a periodic counting of individual items throughout the year. As part of this activity, the user has loaded items to the cycle count but some of the items are not being considered when count schedules and count sequences are generated. Which reason explains why the items are not being considered?

A. The Include in Schedule option is not selected to include the item for auto-scheduling.

B. The Cycle Count Enabled flag is not selected for the item.

C. The approval controls are not set up.

D. The Cycle Count Enabled flag is not selected for the inventory organization.

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

Your company is an automobile spares manufacturing organization, which follows a discrete process. It has its own manufacturing and distribution centers located globally.

It has these business units:

US – USA business unit CAN – Canadian business unit UK – UK business unit MX – Mexican business unit IND – India business unit SPA – Spain business unit FRA – France business unit NL – Netherlands business unit GER – Germany business unit

These are the inventory organizations that exist in each business unit:

Inventory Org – business unit

GM (Master Org) – US US1 (Child Org) – US US2 (Child Org) – US CA1 (Child Org) – CAN MX1 (Child Org) – MX IN1 (Child Org) – IND SP1 (Child Org) – SPA FR1 (Child Org) – FRA NL1 (Child Org) – NL DE1 (Child Org) – GER

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Items defined in the GM organization can be assigned to US1,US2, NL1, and MX1 inventory organizations.

B. You can define an item in the IN1 inventory organization and assign it to the DE1 inventory organization.

C. Item organizations are also supported to serve as inventory organizations.

D. Operational Attributes can be controlled only at the Master Level.

E. All inventory organizations do not need to be in the same business unit to assign items.

F. Items cannot be assigned to inventory organizations across business units.

Correct Answer: AE

Question 3:

Which three statements about the main areas of Managerial Accounting are correct? (Choose three.)

A. Landed Cost Management gives organizations financial visibility into their extended supply chain costs.

B. Supply Chain Orchestration automatically selects the correct process based on user-defined subleadger accounting rules when a supply creation is initiated.

C. Receipt Accounting is the application that performs the accrual accounting for all types of receipts.

D. Cost method can be defined granularity down to individual items.

Correct Answer: ABC

Question 4:

You have set up min-max planning at the subinventory level with the following to source item AS12312 for Organization: M1:

Source Type: Organization

Organization: M1

What type of supply request will be generated?

A. Purchase Requisition

B. Internal Requisition

C. None; this is an invalid setup

D. Intraorganization transfer order

E. Movement request

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

Which attribute value allows usage of common inventory for project specific demand?

A. Allow use of common supplies : No and Hard Pegging Level : Project Group

B. Allow use of common supplies : Null and Hard Pegging Level : Project Group

C. Allow use of common supplies : No and Hard Pegging Level : Project and Task

D. Allow use of common supplies : Null and Hard Pegging Level : None

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

Your are in the process of analyzing the demand and supply schedules for the item based on high level

reservations.

Identify the reservation document type that would be applicable to both supply as well as demand.

A. Account Alias

B. Movement Request

C. Requisition

D. On Hand

E. Work Order

F. Transfer Order

Correct Answer: F

Question 7:

You set up an item organization and an inventory organization as part of your customer\’s

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Question 1:

What is the source file extension schema of APIs in IBM API Connect?

A. .yaml

B. .raml

C. .wadl

D. .wsdl

Correct Answer: A

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/com.ibm.apic.toolkit.doc/ capim_cli_swagger_def_file.html

Question 2:

In which of the following must an application developer provide an HTTP authorization header in requests that are sent to operations requiring that type of authentication?

A. API Key

B. OAuth 2.0

C. Token authorization

D. Basic authentication

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSFS6T/com.ibm.apic.toolkit.doc/ tapim_sec_api_config_scheme_create_basic.html

Question 3:

Consider the scenario where a new provider organization role has been created, and default catalog permissions have been specified for that user under the provider organization admin settings.

If this same role should have reduced permissions for a given catalog, which action should be performed?

A. Nothing, catalog specific roles are not a supported capability.

B. Update the LDAP registry manually with the new permissions.

C. Override the role catalog permissions within the catalog settings.

D. Create another new provider organization role specific for that catalog.

Correct Answer: D

Question 4:

Which command would be used to display log file contents as they are added to the log?

A. generate_log

B. download cmc.out

C. debug postmortem export

D. debug tail file

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/com.ibm.apic.overview.doc/ ref_CLI_debug_commands.html

Question 5:

What can be configured to secure communication between the Gateway server and the Cloud Manager?

A. OAuth 2.0

B. TLS Profiles

C. Network HSM

D. Java KeyStore

Correct Answer: A

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/com.ibm.apic.overview.doc/ capim_overview_apiconnectcomponents.html

Question 6:

When an API call results in an error, a developer does not want to confuse users with a system message that is too technical to be useful.

Where can the error message be overridden?

A. If

B. Catch

C. Throw

D. Invoke

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

What happens to the original Product when it is superseded?

A. Revised

B. Archived

C. Replaced

D. Deprecated

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/ com.ibm.apic.apionprem.doc/task_superseding_a_product.html

Question 8:

What does an application developer need to do to use an API?

A. Subscribe to a Plan.

B. Subscribe to a Product.

C. Write an AngularJS application.

D. Register in the Developer Portal.

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

Which of the following is possible with the API Developer Toolkit?

A. Pull API Analytics Data.

B. Provision a Developer Portal.

C. Publish Products to a Catalog.

D. Delete a Developer Organization.

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

Which operation would be specified for a REST API that would allow data to be retrieved from the back end but without the response body?

A. PUT

B. GET

C. HEAD

D. POST

Correct Answer: B

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMKHH_10.0.0/com.ibm.etools.mft.doc/ bi12017_.htm

Question 11:

Which two statements are true regarding a Plan in Developer Portal?

A. Plans cannot have multiple rate limits set per operation.

B. The burst limit feature is available only through Micro Gateway.

C. A Plan is a collection of API operations or subsets of operations from one or more APIs.

D. All Plans are available to use immediately and requires no access to the Developer Portal.

E. A Plan can have a shared rate limit for all the operations or each operation can have a different rate limit.

Correct Answer: AE

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/com.ibm.apic.devportal.doc/ task_cmsportal_selectplan.html

Question 12:

Which is the best option in the API Manager to create a new OpenAPI from a WSDL?

A. Import an existing OpenAPI

B. New OpenAPI from scratch

C. New OpenAPI from Swagger

D. New OpenAPI from SOAP service

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSFS6T/com.ibm.apic.toolkit.doc/ create_api_wsdl.html

Question 13:

OAuth 2.0 provider APIs can support multiple OAuth flows, each of which corresponds to an OAuth grant type.

What are two valid OAuth flows and the corresponding OAuth grant types? (Select two.)

A. username, password

B. Client ID, Client secret

C. authorization url, auth token

D. Application, Client Credentials

E. Access Code, Authorization Code

Correct Answer: DE

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSFS6T/com.ibm.apic.toolkit.doc/ tapim_sec_api_config_scheme_oauth_endpoint.html

Question 14:

When are the default API manager dashboards and visualizations added to the catalog?

A. When an API is published

B. When a Catalog is created

C. Once a Catalog is published to Developer Portal

D. Once the Developer Portal is enabled in the Catalog settings

Correct Answer: B

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSFS6T/com.ibm.apic.apionprem.doc/ capim_analytics_analyticssyndication.html

Question 15:

Once a user-defined policy is created and implemented, how will it be made available for use?

A. By catalog

B. By provider organization

C. Available universally by all APIs

D. Must be imported into assemble for each API usage

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/com.ibm.apic.policy.doc/ capim_using_custpolicies.html

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