Actual Certifications Exam Q&A - Best Exam Dumps for Sale

Jul 28

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Question 1:

In Unisphere which role has limited privileges that can only view the information about a storage array and is unable to make any configuration changes?

A. None

B. Monitor

C. StorageAdmin

D. Auditor

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

Which product(s) support(s) only 7 1 in RAID 5 configurations?

A. VMAX3

B. VMAX All Flash and PowerMax 8000

C. VMAX All Flash and PowerMax 2000

D. VMAX All Flash

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

A systems administrator plans to use Non-Disruptive Migration (NDM) to migrate data from a VMAX array running Enginuity 5876 to a PowerMax running PowerMaxOS 5978 Which NDM mode will be used?

A. Metro-based

B. Adaptive Copy

C. Asynchronous

D. Pass-through

Correct Answer: A

https://www.delltechnologies.com/asset/en-us/products/storage/technical- support/h17133-non-disruptive-migration-best-practices-and-operational-guide.pdf

Question 4:

What does a service level define*?

A. Expected average throughput for a Storage Group

B. Expected average response time target for a Storage Group

C. Expected average response time target for a disk group

D. Expected average throughput for a disk group

Correct Answer: B

Question 5:

Where are the Host l/Os directed to when the Storage Group is in a Non-Disruptive Migration CutoverReady state?

A. Source array only

B. Held in host cache

C. Source and target arrays

D. Target array only

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

Two PowerMax arrays have been configured for replication using SRDF During a disaster recovery operation production has been transferred to the R2 devices at the target site. Which operation begins the transfer of accumulated invalid tracks from the R2s to the R1s while production work continues on the R2s?

A. Update

B. Fallback

C. Resume

D. Failover

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

Which Unisphere for PowerMax client connection authentication type is irrevocable once it is selected?

A. LDAP – SSL

B. Multi-factor Authentication

C. x.509 Common/Principal Name

D. Windows AD Domain-based

Correct Answer: A

Question 8:

A host is connected to two PowerMax arrays with SRDF/Metro Host l/Os cannot be delivered across the SRDF link. The devices in the SRDF group have been forced into a Not Ready state to the host Which attribute is set on the SRDF group to cause this behavior?

A. Local Link Domino

B. Local Auto Link Recovery

C. Update After Resume Link

D. Limbo Period

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

Which Open Replicator device type resides on the array running Open Replicator?

A. Donor

B. Local

C. Control

D. Remote

Correct Answer: C

Question 10:

Which activity needs to be performed prior to the operations shown in the exhibit?

A. TTL setting should be changed

B. Snapshot should be terminated

C. Target volumes should be unmounted

D. Target volumes should be unmapped

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

When creating SRDP groups, what is always identical on both the participating arrays?

A. Port speed

B. Name of the SRDF group

C. SRDF group number

D. SRDF Directors

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

What is the largest TDEV PowerMaxOS 5978 can create?

A. 16 TB

B. 32 TB

C. 64 TB

D. 128 TB

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

Which SYMCLI command can be used to create a new TDEV and assign it to a Storage Group in one step?

A. symdev

B. symsg

C. symcfg

D. symaccess

Correct Answer: D

Question 14:

How does Solutions Enabler use Gatekeepers to pass commands to the PowerMax array?

A. Automatically creates the Gatekeeper and unlocks the device. Processes the system commands; locks and deletes the Gatekeeper

B. Obtains the Gatekeeper and locks the device. Processes the system commands and unlocks the device

C. Obtains the Gatekeeper and unlocks the device Processes the system commands and locks the device.

D. Automatically creates the Gatekeeper and locks the device Processes the system commands; unlocks and deletes the Gatekeeper.

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

From an application perspective what should be done prior to performing an SRDF Fallback operation?

A. Continue accessing the R2 devices Start accessing the R1 devices before running the command

B. Stop accessing the R2 devices Run the command and then start accessing the R1 devices

C. Stop accessing the R2 devices Start accessing the R1 devices before running the command

D. Continue accessing the R2 devices Run the command and then start accessing the R1 devices

Correct Answer: B

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Jul 27

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Question 1:

Which of the following are the 3 layers of components that storage systems are made up of? (Choose three.)

A. Storage Analysis

B. Storage Solution

C. Storage Software

D. Storage Hardware

Correct Answer: BCD

Question 2:

The only cable type that can be used to connect disk enclosures is the mini SAS cable.

A. FALSE

B. TRUE

Correct Answer: B

Question 3:

In HUAWEI OceanStor V3, which of the following statements about mapping a snapshot is true?

A. Snapshots optionally can be mapped to multiple hosts.

B. All of the answers are true.

C. Snapshots can only be mapped to the same host the original LUN was mapped to.

D. Mapped snapshots are always Read-Only

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

Storage Pools cannot be created with a single tier of disks.

A. FALSE

B. TRUE

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

What is a storage array?

A. A system that manages the network functions and carries the data traffic from host to storage.

B. A system that handles the interconnection of hosts to disks drives and allows hosts to directly access the disks and use it as local drives.

C. A system that has the management software that can provide access to its sets of hard drives or tape libraries for the purpose of data access and storage.

D. A system that handles the communication of data from end users to its storage location and provide confirmation on successful storage.

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

Which of the following criteria fits the definition of the Cloud? (Choose all that apply.)

A. On Demand Self Service

B. Ubiquitous Access

C. Shared Pool Of Configurable Resources

D. Massively Parallel Processing

Correct Answer: ABCD

Question 7:

What is the main difference between mechanical drives such as SAS with solid state drives (SSD)?

A. The lifespan of hard drive.

B. The presence of mechanical parts.

C. The capacity of hard drive.

D. The performance of the hard drive.

Correct Answer: D

Question 8:

If no data migration plan is set, with SmartTier enabled, there will be no data movement at all between tiers.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

Which of the following technologies are able to quickly obtain valuable information from a variety of data types in a short period of time from a collection of vast amounts of data?

A. Cloud

B. Internet Of Things

C. Social Media

D. Big Data

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

Based on the new industrial revolution, what are the changes in the trend of ICT? (Choose all that apply.)

A. ICT is slowly being replaced by other new technologies such as IT and CT.

B. The initial phases of ICT focuses on office automation but slowly changed towards changing business flows.

C. ICT trend is changing slowly with little significant changes.

D. ICT has become the core in the production systems in the recent years.

Correct Answer: BD

Question 11:

Statement 1: Multimode optic cables are usually longer than single mode cables.

Statement 2: Sharp cable bends lead to weaker signal at the end of the cable.

A. Both statements 1 and 2 are false

B. Statement 1 is true and 2 is false

C. Statements 1 and 2 are both true

D. Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true

Correct Answer: D

Question 12:

Which statement is true?

A. An extent can be as small as 512 kB and as large as 128 MB.

B. An extent can be 128 MB, but a grain is always 64 kB.

C. An extent can be as small as 64 MB and as large as 512 MB.

D. An extent can be as small as 512 kB and as large as 64 MB.

Correct Answer: D

Question 13:

Statement 1: RAID 2.0 is NOT based on traditional RAID technologies.

Statement 2: RAID 2.0 has excellent rebuild characteristics.

A. Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.

B. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.

C. Statements 1 and 2 are both true.

D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

Statement 1: Multipathing is caused by adding redundant hardware.

Statement 2: Huawei offers a different version of UltraPath for different operating systems.

A. Statement 1 and 2 are both true.

B. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

C. Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.

D. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.

Correct Answer: A

Question 15:

Which of the following statements about block virtualization technology for Huawei storage systems are correct? (Choose all that apply.)

A. A CKG is the unit used in applying for space, releasing space, and relocating data.

B. Data reconstruction efficiency improves significantly.

C. A RAID group is formed in the unit of physical disks.

D. Data is distributed to all disks, fully leveraging the read/write processing capability of a storage system.

Correct Answer: ABD

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Jul 26

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Question 1:

A customer is a cloud provider who needs a new storage array. They want a solution that has built-in multi-tenancy features. Why should you propose HPE 3PAR StoreServ to the customer?

A. It divides controller nodes into groups for multiple tenants.

B. It includes the virtual domains feature as part of all-inclusive licensing.

C. It divides drives into separate pools for multiple tenants.

D. It includes the NPARs feature for physical separation of the array into tenant areas.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/4aa3-3516enw.pdf

Question 2:

A customer is looking for a new platform to support their AI research projects. Which technology should you recommend?

A. Peer Persistence

B. Multi-core GPUs

C. Availability clustering

D. Persistent memory

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/emea_europe/en/solutions/infosight.html

Question 3:

A customer is looking to virtualize desktops and application access to provide better business continuance and disaster recovery. They also need simplified deployment and the ability to scale out in the feature. Which HPE platform should you recommend?

A. Edgeline

B. ProLiant DL

C. Superdome Flex

D. SimpliVity

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/a00019351enw.pdf

Question 4:

What must be taken into account when using the HPE FlexFabric 5945 4-slot Switch as a ToR switch in a solution?

A. adding in a Network Analytics Engine license

B. specifying a fan tray with the appropriate direction of airflow

C. adding in an Intelligent Resilient Framework license

D. selecting power supplies with adequate reserve PoE capacity

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/uk/en/product-catalog/networking/networking-switches/pip.hpe-flexfabric-5945-switch-series.1010931108.html

Question 5:

A customer wants to implement a container platform across their enterprise data center. They need to automate hardware and software configurations to quickly provision and deploy at scale. Which authentication solution should you recommend?

A. Red Hat Ansible Tower

B. OpenStack on OpenStack

C. Chef

D. DevStack

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

A customer is purchasing a full rack of DL380 Gen10 servers. They are under a severe time constraint and would like the servers to be ready to receive applications upon power up. What should be recommended to satisfy this requirement?

A. Use HPE Proactive Care services.

B. Use HP Pointnext service patching and OS installation services.

C. Include a Customer Intent Document with the order, requesting OS installation services.

D. Nothing additional: all servers arrive from the factory ready for application deployment.

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

A customer running multiple HPE Synergy frames wants to change a parameter in the BIOS of all their VMware servers, based on the recommendations of their VMware team. Where is the most efficient location to make this change?

A. iLO Federation

B. Server Profile Template

C. Logical Enclosure

D. ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU)

Correct Answer: B

Question 8:

A customer asks you about the features of the HPE SimpliVity, such as performance, availability, efficiency, and protection. Which statement is correct about an HPE SimpliVity solution that enables these features?

A. The OmniStack Accelerator Card (OAC) contains a FPGA programmed with HPE SimpliVity deduplication, compression, and optimization algorithms.

B. The OmniStack Accelerator Card (OAC) connects directly to the iSCSI VIP address enabled by the OVC.

C. The OmniStack Accelerator Card (OAC) has direct hardware access to the two PCIe cards through VM direct path IO.

D. The OmniStack Virtual Controller(OVC) creates an iSCSI datastore where the hypervisor stores the workload VMs.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/a00009003enw.pdf (6)

Question 9:

In preparation for a customer presentation, you need to provide meaningful estimates of cooling requirements for HPE ProLiant, HPE Apollo, and HPE Synergy servers. What should you use?

A. HPE Synergy Planning Tool

B. HPE Proposal Web

C. HPE Server Memory Configurator

D. HPE Power Advisor

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA6-2925ENW.pdf

Question 10:

A customer requires front panel access for their Gen10 servers. What is required to meet this need?

A. a USB 2.0 Ethernet adapter

B. an installed iLo Advance license

C. Secure Boot enabled

D. Two-factor authentication enabled

Correct Answer: A

https://d8tadude.com/2018/03/06/hpe-ilo-service-port/

Question 11:

You are designing a highly-available SQL database solution, following HPE reference architectures for Microsoft SQL 2017 on Linux. Which HA design factors should be considered? (Choose two.)

A. Real-Time Operational Analytics

B. Transparent Data Encryption

C. Always On Failover Cluster Instance (FCI)

D. Read-Scale Availability Groups

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx/a00036336enw.pdf

Question 12:

A customer is looking for a switch virtualization feature that can help them simplify the management of their HPE FlexFabric switches. Which technology should you recommend?

A. VSF

B. MSTP

C. VXLAN

D. IRF

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=emr_na-c04214037anddocLocale=en_US (6)

Question 13:

A customer is interested in a Synergy solution. They need 100 compute modules and expect the workload to double in two years. They ask for the minimum number of management ports they will need to connect Synergy frames into their management network. How should you reply?

A. FLMs from all frames connect into a management ring, and the management ring connects into their management network with two uplinks.

B. FLMs from all frames connect to two external switches, and these two switches connect into their management network.

C. Synergy solution only allows 15 frames to be interconnected, so growth in customer\’s

Jul 26

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Question 1:

Which Mist subscription is required for location tracking of Bluetooth badges?

A. Asset Visibility

B. Wi-Fi Assurance

C. Virtual Network Assistant

D. User Engagement

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

Which organization is responsible for certifying that products and technology satisfy Wi-Fi interoperability?

A. Wi-Fi Alliance

B. IETF

C. IEEE

D. ISO

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

How should a Mist AP43 be mounted?

A. mounted vertically above ceilings

B. mounted horizontally on a ceiling

C. mounted horizontally on a table

D. mounted vertically on a wall

Correct Answer: D

Question 4:

Which Mist feature provides an overview of the user experience?

A. Service Level Expectations

B. Policy

C. Location Services

D. Insights

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

Which organization is responsible for creating the 802.11 standard?

A. Wi-Fi Alliance

B. Ethernet Technology Consortium

C. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)

D. International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

Correct Answer: C

Question 6:

What are two requirements to connect an AP to the Mist Cloud? (Choose two.)

A. You need a CA SSL certificate.

B. You need DNS resolution.

C. You need a static IP address.

D. You need a DHCP server

Correct Answer: BC

Question 7:

What does RSSI measure?

A. frequency

B. signal strength

C. interference

D. noise

Correct Answer: B

Question 8:

Which statement is correct about the default configuration of a Mist AP?

A. VLAN tagging is enabled.

B. 192.168.0.1 is statically configured on the uplink port.

C. DHCP is enabled to retrieve IP information.

D. No interface configuration is provided and an IP must be statically defined after booting.

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

Which Mist feature offers Al-based interactive troubleshooting?

A. Marvis

B. Wireless Assurance

C. Insights

D. Site Configuration

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

You have designed a WLAN to satisfy primary coverage, secondary coverage, and capacity requirements. However, you still do not have enough BLE radios to satisfy your location requirements. You want to fill the gaps with a low cost, BLE- only device.

Which Mist device will satisfy this requirement?

A. AP41

B. BT11

C. AP32

D. AP43

Correct Answer: B

Question 11:

What does 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5) specify as the maximum channel width?

A. 160 MHz

B. 60 MHz

C. 20 MHz

D. 40 MHz

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

Which Juniper Mist device enables seamless roaming for large campus networks through on-premises tunneling?

A. Mist BT11

B. Mist AP43

C. Mist AP33

D. Mist Edge

Correct Answer: D

Question 13:

Mist Radio Resource Management makes dynamic changes to which resource?

A. RF template

B. channel width

C. channel

D. BLE channel

Correct Answer: C

Question 14:

Which statement is correct about the Mist API?

A. Only SLE configurations are available from the API.

B. Only AP configurations are available from the API.

C. Everything seen in the GUI is available from the API.

D. Nothing seen in the GUI is available from the API.

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

What are two methods of activating a Mist AP? (Choose two.)

A. Use the activation code.

B. Use the claim code.

C. Use the serial number.

D. Use the universal product code.

Correct Answer: AD

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Jul 24

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Question 1:

If SR140 fax port licenses are present, how many FAX channels are supported by Avaya IX,M Messaging?

A. 48 ports per voice server, 120 max/solution

B. 24 ports per voice server, 120 max/solution

C. 24 ports per voice server, 60 max/solution

D. 48 ports per voice server, 60 max/solution

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

At Maximum Processing Capacity, how many messages per minute (combined email and voice) can Avaya IXTM Messaging successfully process without loss of data, regardless of the number of users?

A. 5000

B. 4000

C. 3000

D. 2000

Correct Answer: B

https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101047702

Question 3:

Which three requirements must be met for an Avaya IXTM Messaging High Availability installation? (Choose three.)

A. Maximum round-trip latency between the voice servers and the PBX must not exceed 200 milliseconds. Optimal round-trip latency is less than 150 milliseconds.

B. All servers must be part of the same Windows domain.

C. All servers must have a minimum 1 Gb/s connection to the network.

D. Maximum round-trip latency between the voice servers and the consolidated servers must not be more than 50 milliseconds.

E. The path of connectivity must have 2 Mb/s guaranteed bandwidth with no steady-state congestion.

Correct Answer: BCE

Question 4:

What is the minimum capacity of the operating system drive to be reserved on the Avaya IXTM Messaging Windows Server 2012 and 2016?

A. It must be 80 GB or greater.

B. It must be 100 GB or greater.

C. It must be 120 GB or greater.

D. It must be 150 GB or greater.

Correct Answer: B

Question 5:

Which two prerequisites and considerations must be met prior installing Avaya IXTM Messaging? (Choose two.)

A. Antivirus software must be installed and operating according to specifications.

B. The corporate telephone system and PBX must be installed and functioning properly.

C. The server must have the operating system installed, patched and completely updated.

D. Create all accounts on the server locally, and it doesn\’t need to have any domain accounts provisioned.

Correct Answer: AD

Question 6:

In Avaya IXTM Messaging Server, network requirements for larger configurations require a 1 Gb/s network connection between Avaya IXT” Messaging and Email servers. In such cases, a lGb/s layer 2-switch between all servers is also required.

How many users are considered for this larger configuration specification?

A. 400 UC users

B. 500 UC users

C. 800 UC users

D. 1000 UC users

Correct Answer: A

Question 7:

Refer to the Exhibit.

The exhibit shows the healthy server with data sync working between the Consolidated server and the voice server node.

What does Remote id stand for?

A. The unique ID for each voice server node which is successfully synchronizing data from Primary server

B. The unique ID for each voice server node which is added in a High Availability solution

C. The unique ID for Consolidated server which is successfully synchronizing data from voice server

D. The unique ID for each voice server node which is successfully synchronizing data from Consolidated server

Correct Answer: A

Question 8:

Which two Windows operating system languages have been validated on Avaya IXTMMessaging release 10.8?

A. French

B. English

C. Arabic

D. Chines

Correct Answer: BD

Question 9:

Running Carbonite Availability backup software requires additional space on the IXM Drive. Which statement about running Carbonite Availability is true?

A. There is at least 200MB free space on the drive as isoccupied by the program\’s

Jul 17

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Question 1:

The VMware SD-WAN solution is comprised of Orchestrator, Gateway, and Edge. The architecture ensures separation and secure communication between the management, control, and data plane of the solution. The management plane consists of the VMware SD-WAN Orchestrator, and the control plane is comprised of the VMware SO-WAN Gateway/ Controller. Which statement correctly describes this situation?

A. VMware SD-WAN Edges/Gateways establishes a Transport Layer Security (TLS) 1 2 encrypted session to the VMware SU-WAN Orchestrator

B. To make the entire solution to work property, TCP port 443 and HOP port 500 and UDP port 4500 are required to open in the firewall rule, if Edge is deployed behind a Firewall.

C. There is impact on data plane when the Edge loses connectivity to the management plane. The operator only loses the visibility of the Edge from Orchestrator and cannot make configuration changes on the Edge until the management plane connectivity is resumed.

D. Traffic between VMware SD-WAN Edges and from VMware SD-WAN Edges to VMware SD-WAN Gateways uses VMware SD-WAN Management Protocol (VCMP) tunneling over User Datagram Protocol (UDP) port 2427. secured with Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

Employees with an Apple iOS device have been causing congestion on the company\’s

Jul 13

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Question 1:

A customer has a requirement for a new solution to handle their growing storage requirements. The solution should have the ability to cover storage needs for the next three years. The environment consists of 100 TBs of file system data spread across five file systems. On average, the file systems grow 1 TB a month. In addition, they have a large VMware cluster supporting 200 VMs and a highly transactional database.

The customer wants the solution to offer good performance, scalability, manageability, and be cost-effective. The sales team is looking to you to recommend a solution.

Which recommendation will meet the customer\’s

Jul 12

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Question 1:

Bonney\’s system has been compromised by a gruesome malware.

What is the primary step that is advisable to Bonney in order to contain the malware incident from spreading?

A. Complaint to police in a formal way regarding the incident

B. Turn off the infected machine

C. Leave it to the network administrators to handle

D. Call the legal department in the organization and inform about the incident

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

According to the forensics investigation process, what is the next step carried out right after collecting the evidence?

A. Create a Chain of Custody Document

B. Send it to the nearby police station

C. Set a Forensic lab

D. Call Organizational Disciplinary Team

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

Which one of the following is the correct flow for Setting Up a Computer Forensics Lab?

A. Planning and budgeting

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://info-savvy.com/setting-up-a-computer-forensics-lab/

Question 4:

Which of the following directory will contain logs related to printer access?

A. /var/log/cups/Printer_log file

B. /var/log/cups/access_log file

C. /var/log/cups/accesslog file

D. /var/log/cups/Printeraccess_log file

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

Which of the following command is used to enable logging in iptables?

A. $ iptables -B INPUT -j LOG

B. $ iptables -A OUTPUT -j LOG

C. $ iptables -A INPUT -j LOG

D. $ iptables -B OUTPUT -j LOG

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://tecadmin.net/enable-logging-in-iptables-on-linux/

Question 6:

Ray is a SOC analyst in a company named Queens Tech. One Day, Queens Tech is affected by a DoS/DDoS attack. For the containment of this incident, Ray and his team are trying to provide additional bandwidth to the network devices and increasing the capacity of the servers.

What is Ray and his team doing?

A. Blocking the Attacks

B. Diverting the Traffic

C. Degrading the services

D. Absorbing the Attack

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

Identify the attack when an attacker by several trial and error can read the contents of a password file present in the restricted etc folder just by manipulating the URL in the browser as shown: http://www.terabytes.com/process.php./../../../../etc/passwd

A. Directory Traversal Attack

B. SQL Injection Attack

C. Denial-of-Service Attack

D. Form Tampering Attack

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://doc.lagout.org/security/SQL Injection Attacks and Defense.pdf

Question 8:

Which of the following formula represents the risk?

A. Risk = Likelihood × Severity × Asset Value

B. Risk = Likelihood × Consequence × Severity

C. Risk = Likelihood × Impact × Severity

D. Risk = Likelihood × Impact × Asset Value

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

The Syslog message severity levels are labelled from level 0 to level 7. What does level 0 indicate?

A. Alert

B. Notification

C. Emergency

D. Debugging

Correct Answer: B

Question 10:

Where will you find the reputation IP database, if you want to monitor traffic from known bad IP reputation using OSSIM SIEM?

A. /etc/ossim/reputation

B. /etc/ossim/siem/server/reputation/data

C. /etc/siem/ossim/server/reputation.data

D. /etc/ossim/server/reputation.data

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

According to the Risk Matrix table, what will be the risk level when the probability of an attack is very low and the impact of that attack is major?

A. High

B. Extreme

C. Low

D. Medium

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.moheri.gov.om/userupload/Policy/IT Risk Management Framework.pdf (17)

Question 12:

Juliea a SOC analyst, while monitoring logs, noticed large TXT, NULL payloads. What does this indicate?

A. Concurrent VPN Connections Attempt

B. DNS Exfiltration Attempt

C. Covering Tracks Attempt

D. DHCP Starvation Attempt

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.google.com/url?s

Mar 13

Microsoft 70-768 Dumps | 70-768 VCE – Study Guide

What is the Microsoft 70-768 certification exam?

Exam 70-768 is about creating and designing multidimensional and tabular databases.

What are the Tabular and Multidimensional Databases?

These are special databases designed for reports. OLAP (Online Analytical Processing) databases. Tabular is an in-Memory database and use RAM to store the data.

Skills Measured in Exam 70-768

Design a multidimensional business intelligence (BI) semantic model (25–30%)
Design a tabular BI semantic model (20–25%)
Develop queries using Multidimensional Expressions (MDX) and Data Analysis Expressions (DAX) (15–20%)
Configure and maintain SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) (30–35%)

Is this exam difficult?

MDX and DAX are topics that are difficult even for experts. Performance topics are always complex topicsnot covered in the book.